OK so this question goes out to those of you who have studied Jewish Law and come to an knowledgeable conclusion on the issue of divorce…
In Deuteronomy 24:1-4 there are regulations regarding divorce and the reasons why a man is permitted to divorce his wife. My first question is this:
1) What is your understanding of the Hebrew word ‘ervah in this passage (Deuteronomy 24:1-4)
Some background before my second and third questions:
In Deuteronomy 22:20-22 we read that if a woman is married and the man accuses her of not being a virgin and she can’t substantiate her claim that she is, then she is to be place to death. In verse 22 we read that a woman who is married who is caught sleeping with another man must also be place to death (as must the man). The mandate regarding adultery is repeated in Leviticus 18:20 and 20:10 and perhaps somewhere else but I didn’t have time to look.
My questions then are:
2) How can adultery demand execution in Deut 22:22 and Lev 20:10 and cold off from the people of God in Lev 18:20. Is there something clear that clarifies what it means to be cut off from God’s people that would reconcile this?
3) Finally, how can the divorce regulations be understood to mean either only in the case of adultery or only in the case where the woman was not a virgin if in such cases the woman should be place to death? Surely in such cases there is no need for divorce for the woman in question is dead…
I have heard that there were two foremost schools of thought – Hillel and Shammai. Hillel focusing on the passage that the woman becomes displeasing to the man and Shammai focusing on an interpretation or understanding of ‘ervah.
It seems to me that ‘any and every wits’ might treat divorce with too small gravity whereas the additional presented interpretation is perhaps moot because the offending wife should be killed and not divorced.
I am trying to write a scholarly article regarding divorce and so am pleased to read links to articles discussing this subject so please feel free to include them liberally if you really reckon them excellent and scholarly – it seems much of what I can find on the internet doesn’t really give me a satisfactory answer to this conundrum. It seems much might hang on a right understanding of ‘ervah so any articles discussing the usage of this word are above all appealing.
Many thanks and may G-d bless you all for your study and dedication.
Sorry the question was so long but I wanted to avoid you having to do some unnecessary writing about things I already have heard about…
Also, please only respond if you truly have something worth adding – it saved us all the distress of reading your answers.
OK, I found a few articles on this topic today. My main mix-up was regarding remarriage in relation to divorce and how remarriage en suite with Jesus’ comments on divorce in Matt 5:31-32 and Matt 19:1-12.
I read a fantastic commentary at:
http://www.biblegateway.com/resources/commentaries/index.php?action=getCommentaryText&cid=1&source=1&seq=i.47.5.10
and excellent description of the ‘ervah question at:
http://www.christianforums.net/viewtopic.php?f=30&t=25142
Finally I summarised my new thoughts on remarriage in a question I answered on Y!A today:
http://answers.yahoo.com/question/index;_ylt=AjYEC7VwKuGvR148v658BJTsy6IX;_ylv=3?qid=20080911153955AALAZaB&show=7#profile-info-aA73aZq5aa
Any questions, additions, new links etc would still be of value as would any comments on the view I have come to as a result of my study.
Thanks!
I'm eager to hear your comments...
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